All this leads to a question that could have been asked earlier. At what point can a party be deemed to be represented? How convincing is the traditional answer: once it has a seat in parliament? Two examples may be given from either end of the political spectrum. Was the IU in Spain represented when, in the 2004 elections, it won 5 seats out of 350, or 1.4% of the seats compared with 5% of the votes? Similarly was the French National Front represented in 1997 with 1 seat, or 0.2% of the total, compared with 14.9% of the votes (a seat that was in any case subsequently taken away from it) and unrepresented in 1993 and 2002, with no seats but more than 10% of the votes?